![]() The date of Matthew’s Gospel is far from certain. Is there any evidence this parable was added to a pre-70 C.E. ![]() ![]() If the Gospel of Matthew was written after 70 C.E., why does Matthew minimize the destruction of Jerusalem? For example, in Matt 22:7: "The king was enraged and sent his troops, destroyed those murderers, and burned their city." That seems like an understatement to describe such a huge and terrible event.
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